Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 28.06.2025 07:55
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What were the reasons for Stalin and Brezhnev's dislike of Khrushchev?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.